KPMD Pilot Initial Qualification Exercise Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• FSAS can be used to compute speeds for the described final approach in the one-engine-inoperative scenario.
• If a reserve tank leak occurs, shut down the ___.
• APU generator only mode - Bleed air for air conditioning or engine start is what in this mode?
• The calm wind correction concept is applied during which phase of flight?
• How do you calculate leg time when wind is a factor?
• For landing, the calm wind correction is to assume a two-knot tailwind. Which of the following statements is true?
• (RV DELTA) When ___, the tanker will adjust to the appropriate air refueling speed.
• Before selecting HDG mode on the FD MSP, what must be synchronized?
• Explain the difference between a cold front and a warm front and typical effects on flight conditions.
• What should you do if you encounter severe icing in flight?
• Which two instruments are not available in reversionary format?
• What is the proper action when you encounter a stall at low altitude with nose-high attitude?
• In APUG generator only mode, bleed air for air conditioning or engine start is not available. Which option best describes this?
• What documentation should be checked for currency prior to flight?
• If crossover is made to the left hydraulic system, the leading edge flaps will ___. Add ___ to the approach and threshold speeds.
• Which practice best supports CRM principles during flight operations?
• The PM will announce below or above any assigned altitude during climb or descent; the PF must acknowledge. What is the exact altitude value and acknowledgment requirement?
• Manual damping of Dutch roll is to be accomplished only with ___; Do not attempt to damp Dutch roll manually with the ___.
• Prior to starting engines and after setting parking brakes, pressurize the reserve brakes until a pressure increase of at least ___ psi above preload pressure is observed.
• If a starter valve fails to engage during engine start, set the starter switch to OFF for how many seconds before attempting another start?
• During preflight, if the landing gear lever is not down, in the detent, ensure that the nose gear ground ___ and release handle is installed. Notify ___ and ___ immediately.
• Which flaps should start down first and be brought up last to permit use of outboard ailerons during flaps down low speed flight?
• During which phase is the final N1 setting adjustment between 40 and 80 knots performed by the pilot monitoring?
• For takeoff with fuel in any main tank below ___ lbs, open all tank-to-engine manifold valves.
• How does workload management reduce the risk of loss of situational awareness?
• If the waypoint identified as a pattern fix becomes the active waypoint while an offset is defined, or a hold pattern is applied to the active waypoint with an offset applied, the offset is automatically canceled. Which statement best describes this behavior?
• On a go-around, the minimum speed for retracting flaps to 30 is ___.
• In abnormal AC power conditions, one allowed action is to reset tripped circuit breakers.
• The OVER TEMP caution light illuminates if the bleed air temperature just downstream of the bleed air precooler reaches what value?
• When landing with partial spoilers (inboards or outboards), by what percentage do the landing ground roll increase, and by what percentage does the delayed braking distance increase?
• If fuel appears insufficient for the planned reserves, what is the proper action?
• What is maneuvering speed for a 30° flap airplane in the traffic pattern?
• Verbal coordination is required when repositioning which valves and switches?
• Uncommanded Rudder, Yaw or Roll: Prior to taking any actions, scan ___ and ___ to ensure uncommanded yawing or rolling motion is not due to a ___ or an ___.
• How does density altitude affect engine and propeller performance?
• Do not set the Autopilot Refuel Mode Switch to OFF when a receiver is within approximately how many feet of the contact position?
• Which sequence correctly describes calculating the aircraft's center of gravity (CG) using weight and moment data?
• During engine start, for temperatures at or below what, set the appropriate engine starter switches to ignition after the N2 reaches 50%?
• During a total engine failure in the traffic pattern, what is the recommended action sequence?
• Which three roles must be involved for a practice emergency separation coordination?
• On the ground, airflow across the heat exchangers is induced using a bleed air what?
• According to AFMAN 11-217 V1, you are considered established in the holding pattern upon initial passage ___.
• For an inboard engine inoperative, ____ power may be used on all operating engines.
• Which instruction governs the alternate airfield requirements used for planning?
• For touch-and-go landings, immediately after the nose gear touches down, the pilot flying will advance the throttles approximately how many knob widths and to what setting?
• What is the purpose of a final approach briefing?
• What is the definition of ground minimum control speed (Vmcg)?
• During initial contact, after transmitting your position and altitude and making a request, what should you do next?
• Which item is part of a standard exterior preflight check?
• What minimum rudder hydraulic pressure (approximately) is required to engage the YAW DAMPER switch?
• Once an IDG is disconnected, it can only be reconnected on the ground with the engine ___.
• What is 'squawk' in aviation?
• For how many seconds must the heading error persist after localizer capture before MISCOMP engages?
• If the switched DC bus failure light comes on, it indicates ___ to the switched DC bus has failed.
• What is a waypoint and how is it used in flight planning?
• Which set of instruments comprise the primary flight instruments and their indications?
• Why is situational awareness critical and what are cues to maintain it?
• The Heading Miscompare Indicator (HDG MISCOMP) comes on when a differential heading error exists between selected systems of how many degrees before localizer capture?
• Which icing exposure strategy best reduces icing exposure during flight?
• What is instrument cross-check and why is it important in IFR flight?
• Verbal coordination is required when repositioning valves and switches on which panel?
• Which statement best describes the 0.2g-limited pitch command scenario in IAS/Mach mode with AP engaged?
• After ignition, the fuel flow rate increases to approximately what value?
• To provide bleed air for starting engines No 3 and 4 and for operation of the air cycle machine, the bleed air crossover valve must be in which position?
• Which indicators should be checked first to diagnose uncommanded yaw or roll as potentially due to engine failure or asymmetric flap condition?
• During a go-around, immediately advance symmetric engines to the ____ power setting.
• What does the vertical speed indicator represent in the primary flight instruments?
• When the AP is engaged, pressing the SYNC pushbutton places the FD in ___ and ___ mode, except when APPR or T/O mode is active.
• In air refueling operations, ARCP stands for what?
• File two alternates when the forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than ___ or if the forecast surface winds (intermittent or prevailing) exceed limits corrected for RCR.
• Low hydraulic pressure with no other indications may indicate ___ as a possible cause.
• During engine-out procedures, what is the recommended climb direction if terrain permits?
• For touch-and-go landings, once thrust is stabilized (40% minimum), the pilot monitoring will state what?
• HDG MISCOMP comes on when the differential heading error is after localizer capture for more than how many seconds?
• In descent, a speed brake lever position of less than 40 degrees is not recommended due to tendency to overcontrol.
• During an actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ___ degrees until, as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached. If terrain and obstacles permit, climb straight ahead.
• What are the three positions of the cabin pressure test valve handle?
• What does 'ads-b no-op' displayed in the annunciation line mean?
• Why are checklists critical and when should they be used during flight?
• Which speeds are compared to Vmcg in determining S1?
• During air refueling, when either number 3 or 4 hydraulic pump inoperative, only the ___ air refueling pumps in the forward/aft body tanks should be used. This will ensure that the ___ is not deprived of available hydraulic supply.
• Describe the recovery from an unexpected spin.
• What is the role of alternates in a cross-country flight plan?
• Name three key components to verify during exterior preflight.
• During descent, a speed brake lever position of less than ___ is not recommended due to the tendency to overcontrol at these settings.
• What does 'IFMP NOGO' message mean on the FSAS STATUS page?
• Another allowed action is to shutdown the generator.
• How does fatigue impact decision-making and what strategies can mitigate it?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a factor influencing takeoff distance?
• N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speed will be recomputed when which changes occur?
• How do you verify fuel status and ensure adequate reserves for planned flight?
• The asymmetric Go-Around N1 power setting is based on not exceeding Vmca on the ___ engine.
• Who must acknowledge altitude deviations during climb or descent?
• How does VOR/DME navigation help determine position?
• What is the PIC's primary responsibility during flight?
• Explain the importance of standard operating procedures (SOPs) and how they support safety?
• If a main tank fuel leak occurs, shut down the ___ on the respective wing.
• During landing roll, the pilot monitoring will monitor engine deceleration and advise when any engine remains in which state?
• If alerting equipment is used, altitude calls and acknowledgments may be accomplished by this equipment.
• Required ramp fuel will consist of all fuel required for ___.
• Which action best mitigates fatigue's impact on decision making?
• HDG mode shall not be used in which areas or for heading reversals?
• Which statement best describes the components of a proper loss-of-communication procedure in aviation?
• The AOA limiter stall fence feature is present in the AOA system and engaged by the Flight Director.
• A nacelle fire is indicated by which combination of indicators?
• Which action should be taken if stabilizer trim movement continues after cutoff and actuation cannot be stopped by normal procedures?
• Turns during climbout will not be used with fewer than how many engines operating?
• What is the definition of maximum motoring?
• Operating the ___ A/R pumps and the ___ simultaneously will result in slow operation of the gear and reduced climbout performance.
• What term describes the fuel that must be on board to cover all fuel required for the mission, including contingencies?
• For positive down spoilers, the speed brake lever should be ___. This is due to rigging tolerances and is necessary to ensure that the lever is in the forward detent.
• Which statement best facilitates clear radio communications during flight?
• What are the maximum numbers for ETCAS target tracking and display?
• What is the typical regulatory meaning of the term 'operating limitations' in the POH?
• For landing with one engine inoperative and rudder power inoperative, fly final approach with 30 flaps using charted ___ and ___ SPEEDS, or as computed by the FSAS.
• Which takeoff minimums are correct for operational and all other categories?
• Altitude calls and acknowledgments are mandatory and will be made over interphone unless accomplished by which equipment?
• Choose alternates that best meet mission requirements and conserve fuel. Those selected should not be ___, if terminal forecasts are marginal.
• What is normal maneuvering speed for a 20° flap airplane on takeoff?
• During engine start, when the throttle is moved from CUTOFF to START, the fuel flow ranges from 300 to 680. After ignition, the fuel flow rate increases to approximately 900. Which option matches the range for the throttle movement?
• What action should you take if marginal weather makes a landing uncertain?
• A nacelle fire is indicated by a compartment overheat light; fire warning light. Which indicators are used to signal a nacelle fire?
• The maximum EGT for engine start is:
• During takeoff, the pilot monitoring will guard the throttles to prevent throttle creep: when?
• Holding (fuel reserves) for remote or island destination: If weather conditions require an alternate airfield in accordance with AFI 11-202 V3, aircrews may use ___ hours of holding fuel (in lieu of an alternate)
• How do you perform a go/no-go decision for landing in marginal weather?
• The ETCAS system can track up to ___ targets and display up to ___.
• What does a TAF provide and how is it used?
• For a rolling takeoff, as the airplane approaches runway heading, ensure the N1 rpm is in the ___ range and symmetrical.
• Verbal coordination between applicable crewmembers is required when repositioning which valves and switches?
• Why is it important to plan using usable fuel rather than total fuel?
• After landing, the PM will monitor engine deceleration and advise the PF of any engines that remain in what state?
• What is the normally used delayed braking factor (DBF) for computing landing distance?
• When repositioning fuel panel valves and switches, what is required?
• Which axis does the Flight Director control when SYNC is pressed with AP engaged?
• Do not operate the landing lights more than ___ on the ground, and during ground operation of the taxi lights, try to avoid light operation of more than ___.
• Moving a hydraulic system pressure switch to OFF opens which valve, resulting in maximum flow circulation of fluid at a reduced pressure (750 psi or less)?
• What is a weight-and-balance check and why is it essential before flight?
• Simulated engine-out approaches and touch-and-go landings are not authorized when PMC is inoperative.
• What describes coordinated flight and the role of rudder and ailerons in a turn?
• Prior to actual accomplishment of a practice emergency separation coordination between which parties is mandatory?
• According to the MEL, can you take off with one FD Mode Select Panel inoperative?
• Which weather phenomenon is more commonly associated with cold fronts than warm fronts?
• A departure alternate is required if __ is below landing minimums for the lowest suitable approach (at departure aerodrome)
• In Flight Director ALTS mode, which altitude reference is ignored by the altitude alerter?
• What are the basic principles of radiotelephony phraseology in aviation?
• The three-engine CRN must be at least what percent to allow climbout turns?
• If a stabilizer occurs above S1, the PM will set the stabilizer trim switch to CUTOFF. If actuation of the cutout switch fails to stop trim movement, the pilot monitoring will stop the movement by ___.
• Which statement best describes the meaning of ADS-B no-op?
• When in IAS or MACH mode the FD commands a minimum ___ fpm climb/descent, regardless of ___.
• (Flight Director) The ALTS mode ignores the altitude alerter ___ mode; therefore, the FD command bars will not capture ___.
• What is the purpose of CRM and how does it reduce risk?
• According to the Minimum Equipment List, you can take off with the No. 4 main tank fuel quantity gauge inoperative.
• The load buses can be interconnected through ___ to a synchronizing bus which allows parallel operation of the generators.
• In IAS or MACH mode, the flight director's minimum climb/descent rate of 100 fpm is commanded regardless of which parameter?
• What is the minimum thrust percentage at stabilization for touch-and-go?
• If the landing gear lever is not down in detent during preflight, which two groups should be notified immediately?
• Which condition regarding surface winds triggers filing two alternates?
• What is the main benefit of connecting load buses to a synchronizing bus via bus tie breakers?
• Which statement about angle of attack and stall speed is true?
• Automatic disengagement occurs when an excessive attitude condition is detected. What bank angle threshold defines this condition?
• During preflight, prior to performing the flap and speed brake warning horn check, ensure which of the following?
• Which factor is explicitly listed as influencing takeoff distance?
• Which instrument provides the primary reference for pitch and bank in straight-and-level flight?
• When using greater than what DBF will crews brief the planned braking speed?
• Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds ___.
• In a stabilizer trim runaway that occurs at or below S1, simultaneously, the pilot flying will which action and the pilot not flying will which action?
• If the emergency dictates and the APU has not shut down automatically, the APU(s) may be shut down by using which method?
• One of the allowed actions is to operate the generator in an isolated manner.
• In a VFR cross-country flight, what is the purpose of exit points?
• Which statement about METAR information is true?
• What is the purpose of a standard preflight inspection?
• To whom does the pilot monitoring report engine deceleration during landing roll?
• During an outboard engine failure, takeoff continued, when would you expect EFAS to disengage? Airspeed exceeds ___ knots or the flaps are retracted above ___.
• Heading corrections while in HDG mode are limited to minor adjustments of less than how many degrees?
• If the landing gear will not move to the up position, then prior to using the override trigger, check ___.
• Never attempt to work on equipment using ___ power.
• During the main flap manual operation, to assure adequate lateral control in the lower speed range, the ___ flaps should be started down first and brought up last to permit use of the outboard ailerons for as long as possible during flaps down low speed flight.
• During depressurization, the maximum hydraulic flow occurs at what pressure?
• Which statement best describes the guidance on alternate locations when forecasts are marginal?
• All crewmembers will inform the pilot when ___.
• When there is any doubt about the validity of an EGPWS alert, what should the crew do?
• Why is weather information included in a VFR cross-country flight plan?
• If rudder fails to reduce to the low range after flap retraction, set the rudder power switch to OFF prior to ___.
• How should you respond to a loss of electrical power?
• The wing manifold can be divided into two sections by which valve?
• N1 settings, pattern, approach, and reference speed will be recomputed when any of the following occur: gross weight changes 10,000 lbs; temperature changes 3C; pressure altitude changes 500; airplane configuration changes or wind conditions require adjustment.
• During RV Golf operations, tanker(s) and receiver(s) navigate independently to arrive at the ARIP ___.
• The IDG is equipped with a ___ which, when actuated from the overhead control panel, disconnects the generator from its drive.
• Which documents must be on board and readily available during flight?
• Ground idle N2 range values are given as 54 and 62. Which option correctly lists these values?
• Minimum weather (RVR) for takeoff is ___ for operational and ___ for all others.
• The Flight Director (FD) is not tied to the AOA system and does not have an AOA limiter stall avoidance feature.
• During preflight checks of the Autopilot and Flight Director, any combination of APC (SYS 1 or SYS 2) and FD (L or R) may be used.
• Which statement about Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) is true?
• Which statement about maintenance logs is accurate?
• What is scenario-based risk assessment and how is it applied in flight planning?
• Which of the following is a recommended prerequisite before initiating the first turn in a standard VFR traffic pattern?
• Which elements are essential components of a VFR cross-country flight plan?
• During a go-around, what action do both pilots take with the TOGA/AP DISC switches?
• What cues are important for maintaining situational awareness?
• When flaps are retracted to the UP position during the takeoff phase, the pilot monitoring should check rudder pressure drops to the ___.
• An excessive pitch angle triggering disengagement is defined as pitch greater than which pair of values?
• What is the PIC's role regarding flight progress and decision-making?
• After landing, which engines should be reported as still in flight idle?
• During rendezvous with fighters, request ___ consecutive altitudes to allow 1,000 ft below the fighters for maneuvering to the tanker.
• For a typical VFR landing pattern, the first turn should not be initiated until which of the following is satisfied?
• Define basic empty weight and describe how it relates to computing loaded weight.
• Explain the difference between usable fuel and total fuel and their importance in planning.
• What is the purpose of NOTAMs and how should a pilot use them?
• During takeoff, which crew member will make the final N1 setting adjustment between 40 and 80 knots?
• During climbout after takeoff, the maximum allowable speed deviation is +8 knots with 20° flaps and +3 knots with 30° flaps. What is the value?
• What is the correct format for initial contact with a control facility?
• How do you ensure you and your crew remain current and proficient for initial qualification in ongoing operations?
• How would you request a heading change to avoid conflicting traffic?
• Which two conditions require filing two alternates?
• OG/CC approval is required for landings planned with greater than which DBF?
• What is the primary purpose of standard operating procedures in aviation?
• During a bounce recovery with a four-engine go-around, failure to advance all throttles will result in what condition?
• Which statement correctly differentiates true course, magnetic course, and heading?
• What is wind shear and why is it important during takeoff and landing?
• Besides interphone, which system can be used to accomplish altitude calls and acknowledgments?
• What is the recommended practice to manage workload to maintain situational awareness?
• Which display shows the EEID reversionary format when the EEID/NORM switch is selected, automatically if the EEID fails, or if the CIPS is operating (loss of all generators)?
• In IAS or MACH climbs/descents with AP engaged, due to a 0.2g-limited pitch command, a slow increase/decrease (approximately ___ seconds) to full/idle power is required to avoid ___.
• Which item is included in emergency procedures for a VFR cross-country flight?
• Takeoff winds may be reported as light and variable or calm. If light and variable is reported, the agency will be queried to determine the ___ wind velocity and ___.
• When should you use the phrases Mayday and Pan-Pan?
• To dump fuel, it is not necessary to have the boom out of the stowed position.
• Which of the following is NOT a typical element of a final approach briefing?
• When landing with ___, avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make a normal flare and touchdown at threshold speed minus 10 knots.
• How can icing affect flight performance and what strategies reduce icing exposure?
• If the waypoint identified as a pattern fix becomes the active waypoint while an offset is defined, or a hold pattern is applied to the active waypoint with an offset applied, the offset is automatically canceled.
• What is airspace classification and why does it matter for flight planning?
• If gusts cause the flap retraction speed to approach or exceed flap placard speed, which speed should be used for flap retraction?
• During landing with less than full flaps, the target touchdown speed is at threshold speed minus how many knots?
• Ground idle N2 range is ___ to ___.
• What flap setting is specified for the final approach in the one-engine-inoperative scenario?
• How do you communicate a loss of communications to ATC?
• When landing with an engine inoperative and rudder power inoperative, pay particular attention to which Go-Around N1 power settings?